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Is "thinning" worse than "recession" in terms of being an indication of future hairloss? In my case, I have NO diffuse thinning, but I do have bitemporal recession. Where I DO have hair, I have all of it and betray no signs of thinning, but, in my "problem" areas, I have none of it.
(4) If one can reach age 30 at NW 2 or 2.5 and without diffuse thinning, what, in your experiences, would be his propsects for continued loss?
Thinning is worse then recession when the thinning area is large (norwood 4-6). it is definetally indicating on minuterization of the natural excisting hair follicles in that area to the point of baldness while a guy who is receding in one area and full in the other can expect to stay that way...but it is mostly depending on the family hair loss history (genetics). If you are receding and your father is norwood 3a, it is very likely that you will end up in the same norwood scale in his age.
Can you tell me about your family hair loss history?